Tanya. I've just heard some disturbing news. A major recent study just compared two demographically identical groups, one of which listened to classical music a lot, and the other didn't listen to classical music at all. The group of classical music listeners turned out to have a much higher percentage of white-collar criminals than the non listeners, so it looks like listening to classical music causes white-collar crime.
Alfred. I've seen the same study, and I can tell you that it totally fails to prove that classical music causes white-collar crime because nowhere in that study do they even begin to explain how listening to classical music goes about causing that white-collar crime.
Do we have to explain how a cause achieves its effect in order to prove that it does achieve that effect?
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